UPSC CSE 2026 Paper 1 answer key
Check the public answer key for UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 General Studies Paper I. Each entry includes the question number, correct option, and a concise explanation.
All 100 answer entries are listed in question-number order.
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Question-wise answer key
Use the answer label and answer text for quick checking. Open a row for the explanation.
Q1Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyD. 3
Explanation
The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems is a decisive fact that supports the assertion that in the Pleistocene period, either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.
Q2What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?Art & CultureA. The meditation of the Buddha
Explanation
In early Buddhist iconography, an empty seat represents the meditation of the Buddha, symbolizing his deep contemplation and spiritual growth, which is a crucial aspect of Buddhist teachings and practices.
Q3Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryC. 3 only
Explanation
The correct pair of ancient and modern names of rivers is Parushni : Ravi, as Parushni was an ancient name for the Ravi river, which is a significant geographical feature in the region.
Q4Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Select the answer using the code given below :Art & CultureB. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Amaravati Stupa was indeed located in the lower Krishna valley, and its relief sculpture had a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, with its products being carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia, making statements 1 and 3 correct.
Q5Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryB. 2 only
Explanation
The pair of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam that is not correctly matched is Udiyanjeral : Chola, as Udiyanjeral was a king of the Pandya dynasty, not the Chola dynasty.
Q6Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose. Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryB. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 was largely due to the failure of Bose to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi, the disunity of the Congress Left, and the preference of socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan for Congress unity over supporting Bose.
Q7Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 : 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?HistoryA. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 involved making a Summary Revenue Settlement, assuming the taluqdars were outsiders, and taking revenue directly from peasants by removing the taluqdars, thereby dispossessing them of their estates.
Q8Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryD. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919, laid the foundation for political alliances based on community, as they retained and extended the principle of separate electorates, aimed to counter Indian nationalism, and provided favours to deprived classes through separate electorates.
Q9Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :Art & CultureD. Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
Explanation
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, a prominent musical tradition in Indian classical music.
Q10In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?HistoryB. Atharvaveda
Explanation
The term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originates in the Atharvaveda, an ancient Indian text that highlights the importance of women in ancient Indian society and their roles in agriculture and fertility rituals.
Q11Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?Art & CultureD. Dheera Shankarabharanam
Explanation
Dheera Shankarabharanam is a Carnatic music raga that shares similarities with Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music, characterized by its melodic structure and emotional depth, making it a prime example of the convergence of musical traditions in India.
Q12The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?HistoryA. Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness
Explanation
The Hilton-Young Commission's artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate was adopted by the British Government to aid the flow of remittances from India and maintain India's creditworthiness, thereby ensuring the country's economic stability and reputation.
Q13Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following ? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryC. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The statements associated with the emergence of urban life and transition to money economy are corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver, highlighting the significance of Pali texts in understanding India's economic and social development.
Q14Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Select the answer using the code given below :Art & CultureB. 2 and 3
Explanation
The Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh, and the Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal, are notable examples of Nagara-style shikhara, characterized by their towering spires and intricate carvings, showcasing the architectural diversity of ancient Indian temples.
Q15Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?HistoryB. Yaksha (demi-gods)
Explanation
Yaksha (demi-gods) is not included in the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which are Deva (gods), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals and plants), and Nirjiva (insentient beings), highlighting the distinct philosophical framework of Jainism.
Q16The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :Art & CultureA. A joyous folk dance
Explanation
The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents a joyous folk dance, showcasing the vibrant culture of ancient India, where art and dance were integral parts of everyday life, reflecting the country's rich cultural heritage.
Q17Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 - 596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. Which of the statements given above are correct ?HistoryD. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 - 596), indicating the widespread adoption of this system in inscriptions across India, including South-east Asia, by the seventh century.
Q18Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system. Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryA. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The presence of spindle-whorls in Harappan houses but absence of spinning wheels suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home, while the discovery of weights and measurement scales indicates the extent of scientific knowledge possessed by the Harappans.
Q19Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?HistoryC. The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
Explanation
The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents, highlighting the struggles of the people against oppressive taxation and rent collection.
Q20Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ? 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water. 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle). 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts. Select the answer using the code given below :HistoryC. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water, as well as the use of oxen for ploughing and pulling carts, supports the statements about the Rigvedic period, showcasing the advanced agricultural practices and technological innovations of the time.
Q21Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?GeographyA. Ecuador
Explanation
Tungurahua Volcano, declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in Ecuador, a country known for its rich geological heritage and diverse volcanic landscapes, making it an ideal location for such a designation.
Q22With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyB. 1 and 2
Explanation
Madhav National Park was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025, and Sakhya Sagar, a designated Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park, highlighting the park's importance in conservation efforts and its unique wetland ecosystem.
Q23With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyB. 1 and 2
Explanation
The climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate, characterized by high temperatures and high levels of rainfall, with the islands receiving rainfall from both the South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon, resulting in a unique and diverse climate.
Q24Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyB. 1 and 2
Explanation
The Peninsular Block of India is associated with the submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity and the presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills, showcasing the region's complex geological history and diverse landforms.
Q25Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India : I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below :EconomyB. 1 and 2
Explanation
The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure, and its success is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings, validating the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in the programme.
Q26Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) : 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Environment & EcologyB. 1 and 3
Explanation
Rhynchostylis retusa, or the Foxtail orchid, is an epiphytic orchid that thrives on other plants, and it is indeed the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam, showcasing its unique characteristics and significance in these regions.
Q27Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles. Select the answer using the code given below :Art & CultureC. 3 only
Explanation
The Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom, served as burial grounds for the Royals and Nobles, highlighting the cultural and historical importance of these structures in the region's heritage.
Q28At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation". Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?Environment & EcologyB. Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
Explanation
The FAO's 'Four Betters' for 'Blue Transformation' emphasize the importance of sustainable practices, including better production, nutrition, environment, and life, which are crucial for achieving a resilient and sustainable ocean ecosystem.
Q29Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'. Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyB. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Lake Turkana is indeed the largest desert lake in the world and is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, earning its nickname as the 'Jade Sea' due to its unique characteristics and natural beauty.
Q30Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?Environment & EcologyC. Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
Explanation
The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project in India was the first to receive Plan Vivo certification, marking a significant milestone in the country's efforts to combat deforestation and promote sustainable forest management.
Q31Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyB. 1 and 2
Explanation
Statement I is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070, as it outlines a long-term strategy for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Statement II supports this strategy by indicating a decrease in emissions, which is a step towards achieving net-zero emissions.
Q32With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyB. 1 and 2
Explanation
The Western Hoolock Gibbons are listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List, and a Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this species. They also possess specialized brachiation, allowing them to easily swing between trees, which is essential for their survival.
Q33Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyD. 3 only
Explanation
Mangroves function as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities by withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, making them crucial for climate resilience and community development.
Q34In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below :EconomyD. 3 only
Explanation
The Vizhinjam International Seaport represents a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy by leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
Q35Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information : 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following :GeographyC. Sutlej
Explanation
The Sutlej River originates in the Tibetan Plateau and flows through three countries, making it an important river for irrigation, and it does not form distributaries, which is a characteristic of this river.
Q36Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct ? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyC. 2 and 3
Explanation
Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States, and Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State, making option 2 and 3 correct.
Q37Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct ? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyA. 1 only
Explanation
The arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia showcases sustained local conservation efforts, contributing to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds, making option 1 correct.
Q38Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) ? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyD. 3 only
Explanation
The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) aims to enhance productivity and minimise climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), making option 3 correct.
Q39Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry ? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products. 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets. Select the answer using the code given below :Current AffairsC. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products and confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, making both options 1 and 2 correct.
Q40Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyB. 1 and 3
Explanation
Ships from Bahrain and Qatar have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean, making option 1 and 3 correct.
Q41Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (INTERPOL Notice) A. Silver Notice B. Blue Notice C. Black Notice D. Green Notice List II (Description) 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety 4. To identify and trace criminal assets Code :Current AffairsC. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Explanation
The decisive fact or statement logic is that the Blue Notice is issued to collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation, which is the correct description for option B-2.
Q42Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyB. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The decisive fact or statement logic is that the Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under NIRANTAR, with the lead institute being the Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata, and Capacity Development Support is a vertical under NIRANTAR, with the lead institute being the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Q43The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit? 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow Select the answer using the code given below :Current AffairsB. 1 and 4
Explanation
The decisive fact or statement logic is that the Chancellor's visit did not result in the signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg, nor the opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow.
Q44Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyC. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The decisive fact or statement logic is that DHRUV64 is indeed the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme, with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India, and it is also India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
Q45The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below :Current AffairsC. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The decisive fact or statement logic is that the new standard is indeed IS 19445 : 2025, and it will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies, but the development was not done by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Q46'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':Science & TechnologyC. John Clarke
Explanation
John Clarke is a renowned physicist who was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025 for his groundbreaking work on superconducting qubits, a significant achievement in the field of quantum computing.
Q47Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament. Select the answer using the code given below :General StudiesC. 1 only
Explanation
The Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments have a shared governance structure, but they are not open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14, and there is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
Q48Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?Science & TechnologyC. HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. is not located in Madhya Pradesh, but rather in Tamil Nadu, making the statement about its location incorrect.
Q49Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyA. 1 only
Explanation
The Bharat Forecast System is designed to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level, and it was indeed developed by IIT Delhi, making both statements correct.
Q50Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' : 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Current AffairsA. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The film 'Boong' has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category, it is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, and it is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category, making all three statements correct.
Q51Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyC. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 because blockchain technology ensures that records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration, copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds, and mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.
Q52An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :EconomyA. Dropshipping Model
Explanation
The correct answer is Dropshipping Model because it is an e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer.
Q53Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?EconomyC. Access, Usage, and Quality
Explanation
The correct answer is Access, Usage, and Quality because the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) consists of three key sub-indices representing access to financial services, usage of financial services, and the quality of financial services.
Q54Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative ?EconomyC. To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
Explanation
The correct answer is To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks because the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) initiative aims to promote interoperability across different e-commerce platforms, enabling small and medium-sized businesses to compete with large e-commerce players.
Q55Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct ?EconomyD. In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.
Explanation
The correct answer is In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks because in the case of UPI, the liability lies with the banks, whereas in the case of Digital Rupee, the liability lies with the central bank, not the users or their banks.
Q56Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 x 7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India. Select the answer using the code given below :EconomyA. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Tokenization of real-world assets is a process that converts tangible assets into digital tokens, utilizing blockchain technology. This process offers 24x7 access, promoting financial inclusion, and provides access to high-growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.
Q57A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :EconomyC. Sustainability Bond
Explanation
A sustainability bond is a type of bond that finances or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects, making it a crucial tool for promoting sustainable development and reducing the environmental footprint of investments.
Q58Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ? 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs. 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs. Select the answer using the code given below :EconomyB. 2 only
Explanation
M1xchange facilitates the discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs, providing them with immediate access to liquidity and helping to bridge the gap in their cash flow requirements, thereby supporting their growth and development.
Q59Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy ?EconomyB. A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
Explanation
The crowding out effect occurs when government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which in turn reduces private investment, as higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive and less attractive to private investors, thereby reducing the overall level of investment in the economy.
Q60Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. Select the answer using the code given below :GeographyA. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Modern technological innovations, including Artificial Intelligence, robotics, and space exploration, extensively utilize Rare Earth Elements (REEs), which are a set of 13 metallic elements, and the Government of India has launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
Q61Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault. Select the answer using the code given below :EconomyC. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Aviation Hull Insurance covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment, providing financial protection to airlines in case of damage or loss. The Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999, holds airlines strictly liable for compensation to families of deceased passengers without requiring fault to be proven.
Q62Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project. 2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures. Select the answer using the code given below :EconomyC. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Crowdfunding involves soliciting small amounts of funds from multiple investors through web-based platforms or social networking sites for specific projects, enabling Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) to raise funds at lower costs without undergoing rigorous procedures.
Q63With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details : | Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | 1. | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India | | 2. | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India | | 3. | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India | | 4. | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India | In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?EconomyD. 2 and 4
Explanation
The L.C. Gupta Committee prepared a roadmap for introducing derivatives trading in India, while the Y.H. Malegam Committee worked on reforms in the Microfinance sector, both under the Securities and Exchange Board of India and Reserve Bank of India, respectively.
Q64Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India : 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself. 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?EconomyA. 1 and 4
Explanation
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India cannot accept demand deposits and are not eligible for deposit insurance facilities, highlighting key differences in their operations and regulatory requirements compared to banks.
Q65Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) : 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?EconomyA. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) calculated by NITI Aayog uses the Alkire-Foster methodology and includes a total of twelve indicators, with Maternal Health being a common indicator in both NITI Aayog and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) MPIs.
Q66Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyC. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Genetic medicines correct or compensate for faulty genes responsible for diseases by introducing healthy copies of the gene, thereby correcting the genetic defect. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers to deliver the genetic medicine to the target cells, where it can exert its corrective effect.
Q67Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyB. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Large Language Models (LLMs) assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability, enabling them to generate coherent and contextually relevant text. LLMs also process data through mathematical optimization to minimize prediction errors, thereby improving their accuracy and efficiency.
Q68Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyC. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material, which helps to reduce their visibility on radar. Stealth objects can also be detected using specific frequencies, which are designed to evade detection by conventional radar systems.
Q69Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyB. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts record both the cockpit voice and flight data, providing valuable information in the event of an accident. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium, which are durable and resistant to extreme temperatures and pressures.
Q70Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below :Environment & EcologyB. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Green Hydrogen is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy, making it a clean and sustainable source of energy. The National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims to abate nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030, thereby contributing to a cleaner and greener environment.
Q71Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme : 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Science & TechnologyA. 1 only
Explanation
The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities in India's space programme, thereby promoting the growth of the private space sector in the country.
Q72Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyB. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm, and GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack, enabling the command centre to maintain control over the swarm.
Q73Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyB. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The GenomeIndia Project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India, and its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population, thereby contributing to the understanding of the genetic makeup of the Indian population.
Q74Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyC. Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The National Quantum Mission (NQM) aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits, and its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India, thereby promoting the growth of the quantum computing sector in the country.
Q75Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission. Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyB. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
India's Deep Ocean Mission was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, and it includes projects such as Samudrayaan, which is a submersible vehicle designed to carry people to the ocean floor, and Matsya-6000, which is a submersible designed to carry people for deep sea exploration.
Q76Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions ?Polity & GovernanceC. Accountability
Explanation
Accountability is a fundamental principle of public administration, emphasizing the responsibility of public officials to answer for their actions and decisions. Mr. X's actions demonstrate accountability by reporting the issue to the appropriate authority and halting the contract to ensure citizen welfare, upholding the principles of public administration.
Q77In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above : 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ?Polity & GovernanceA. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. This approach helps build trust and facilitates a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Q78Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now ? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below :General StudiesB. 3 only
Explanation
Ms. X should propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being. This approach maintains transparency and public trust while also protecting the project's integrity and avoiding potential delays or reputational damage.
Q79'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :Polity & GovernanceD. The view of only 'Y' is correct.
Explanation
The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is correct, as Article 13 of the Constitution of India explicitly mentions that the term 'law' includes custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, demonstrating the comprehensive nature of the term 'law' in the Indian Constitution.
Q80Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India : 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?Polity & GovernanceB. There is no correct statement.
Explanation
There is no correct statement, as Articles 394, 395, and 396 of the Constitution of India explicitly mention the repeal of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Government of India Act, 1935, and the commencement of the Constitution of India on 26th January, 1950, respectively.
Q81Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below :Polity & GovernanceB. 2 only
Explanation
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination, and focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems, and information and communication technology.
Q82Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India : 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?Polity & GovernanceA. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
Explanation
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, and the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Q83Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India : 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?Polity & GovernanceC. There is only one correct statement.
Explanation
Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House, and no supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Q84Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India : 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?Polity & GovernanceD. There is no correct statement.
Explanation
There is no correct statement regarding the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India.
Q85Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India : 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Current AffairsA. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Mission Sudarshan Chakra aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities, enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy, and cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
Q86Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries : 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?GeographyD. 3 only
Explanation
The decisive fact is that Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal, making statement 3 correct.
Q87Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below :Polity & GovernanceD. 2 only
Explanation
The decisive fact is that the Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry, making statement 2 correct.
Q88With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details : | Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs | | 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance | | 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension | In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?Polity & GovernanceA. 1
Explanation
The decisive fact is that the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) is correctly matched with the Ministry of Home Affairs, making statement 1 correct.
Q89Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ? 1. Employment Policy Convention 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness Select the answer using the code given below :Polity & GovernanceD. 3, 4 and 5
Explanation
The decisive fact is that India has not ratified the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families, the Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War, and the Convention on Reduction of Statelessness, making statements 3, 4, and 5 correct.
Q90Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi : 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress. 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Current AffairsD. 3 only
Explanation
The decisive fact is that the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, making statement 3 correct.
Q91Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project 2. IMT Trilateral Highway 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line Select the answer using the code given below :Current AffairsA. 1 and 2
Explanation
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project and the IMT Trilateral Highway are key connectivity projects between India and ASEAN member countries, aimed at enhancing regional trade and economic cooperation, thereby promoting economic growth and development in the region.
Q92Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Project Supported by India) A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project B. Restoration of Stor Palace C. District Hospital at Dickoya D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies List II (Country) 1. Maldives 2. Afghanistan 3. Bhutan 4. Sri Lanka Code :Current AffairsB. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Explanation
India has supported various projects in its neighbourhood, including the Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project in Bhutan, the Restoration of Stor Palace in Afghanistan, the District Hospital at Dickoya in Sri Lanka, and the Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies in the Maldives, demonstrating its commitment to regional cooperation and development.
Q93Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine Select the answer using the code given below :Science & TechnologyA. 1 and 2
Explanation
India has made significant strides in defence manufacturing, producing advanced defence hardware such as the Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets and the T-90 MK-III Tanks, showcasing its capabilities in indigenous defence production and self-reliance.
Q94Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation : 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Current AffairsC. 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' and the 'Global Forum for Migration and Development' are voluntary, non-binding consultative processes that facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility and migration, respectively, highlighting the importance of multilateral cooperation in addressing global challenges.
Q95Consider the following UN organisations/agencies : 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?Polity & GovernanceA. 1
Explanation
The World Food Programme has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 2020 and 1968, recognizing its efforts to combat hunger and improve food security, particularly in conflict-affected areas and among vulnerable populations.
Q96Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) A. UNMIL B. MINURCAT C. MINUSTAH D. UNMISET List II (Period of Operation) 1. 2007 - 2010 2. 2002 - 2005 3. 2003 - 2018 4. 2004 - 2017 Code:Polity & GovernanceB. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation
MINURCAT was a UN peacekeeping mission in the Central African Republic and Chad. It was established in 2007 and ended in 2010. Therefore, the correct option is B-1, which corresponds to MINURCAT and the period of operation 2002-2005.
Q97Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility List II (Location) 1. NOIDA 2. Bengaluru 3. Colombo 4. Thimphu Code:Current AffairsC. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Explanation
The BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is located in Colombo. This centre is responsible for providing weather and climate-related services to the member countries of BIMSTEC. Therefore, the correct option is C-1, which corresponds to the BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate and the location Colombo.
Q98Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)General StudiesD. 33 Corps : Srinagar
Explanation
The 33 Corps of the Indian Army is headquartered in Bhopal, not Srinagar. Therefore, the correct option is 33 Corps : Bhopal, which is not among the given options, but it is the correct match.
Q99Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below:Polity & GovernanceB. 2 only
Explanation
The key objective of the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. This statement is correct, making option 2 the correct answer.
Q100Which of the following countries are members of the European Union? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland Select the answer using the code given below:Polity & GovernanceC. 2 and 3
Explanation
Germany and Poland are members of the European Union. Therefore, the correct option is 2 and 3, which corresponds to Germany and Poland.
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